All Prelims papers

UPSC Prelims 2000

General Studies Paper I

146 questions, 2 hours. Open a question for its answer and why.

  1. Question 1 · International Relations and Current Affairs

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Development Programme II. National Council of Applied Economic Research III. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research IV. World Bank List II A) UN India Human Development Report B) India Development Report C) World Development Report D) Human Development Report Codes:

    aI-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
    bI-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
    cI-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
    dI-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
  2. Question 2 · Economy and Social Development

    “...instil into the vast millions of workers, men and women, who actually do the job, a sense of partnership and of cooperative performance....” The above passage relates to

    aPlanned Development
    bCommunity Development
    cPanchayati Raj System
    dIntegrated Development Programme
  3. Question 3 · Polity and Governance

    The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as

    adecorum
    bcrossing the floor
    cinterpellation
    dyielding the floor
  4. Question 4 · History and Culture

    While delivering the presidential address, the Congress President who advocated the introduction of Roman script for Hindi language was

    aMahatma Gandhi
    bJawaharlal Nehru
    cAbul Kalam Azad
    dSubhas Chandra Bose
  5. Question 5 · Polity and Governance

    Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India: I. He is appointed by the President of India. II. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court. III. He must be a member of either House of Parliament. IV. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI and II
    bI and III
    cII, III and IV
    dIII and IV
  6. Question 6 · Geography

    Along which one of the following meridians did India experience the first light of the sunrise of the new millennium?

    a2° 30′ W
    b82° 30′ E
    c92° 30′ W
    d92° 30′ E
  7. Question 7 · Economy and Social Development

    The Standing Committee of State Finance Ministers recommended in January 2000 uniform rates across the States in respect of

    avalue-added tax
    bsales tax
    cstamp duty and registration fees
    dagricultural income tax
  8. Question 8 · History and Culture

    At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of the British India came forward with a plan for a united and independent existence?

    aPunjab
    bAssam
    cBengal
    dBihar
  9. Question 9 · Polity and Governance

    Consider the following functionaries: I. Cabinet Secretary II. Chief Election Commissioner III. Union Cabinet Ministers IV. Chief Justice of India Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is

    aIII, IV, II, I
    bIV, III, I, II
    cIV, III, II, I
    dIII, IV, I, II
  10. Question 10 · Polity and Governance

    The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to

    adistribute revenue between the Centre and the States
    bprepare the Annual Budget
    cadvise the President on financial matters
    dallocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
  11. Question 11 · Polity and Governance

    The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is

    aBihar
    bGujarat
    cUttar Pradesh
    dMadhya Pradesh
  12. Question 12 · Geography

    Consider the following statements: I. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing. II. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely. III. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours. IV. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI and IV
    bII, III and IV
    cI, II and III
    dI, II, III and IV
  13. Question 13 · Economy and Social Development

    Indian Human Development Report does not give for each sample village

    aInfrastructure and Amenities Index
    bEducation Related Index
    cHealth Related Index
    dUnemployment Related Index
  14. Question 14 · Geography

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Oceanic Trench) I. Aleutian II. Kermadec III. Sunda IV. S. Sandwich List II (Location) A) Indian Ocean B) North Pacific Ocean C) South Pacific Ocean D) South Atlantic Ocean Codes:

    aI-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
    bI-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
    cI-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
    dI-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
  15. Question 15 · History and Culture

    The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain-child of

    aW. Churchill
    bM. A. Jinnah
    cLord Mountbatten
    dV. P. Menon
  16. Question 16 · Polity and Governance

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Institute) I. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies II. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research III. National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences IV. Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages List II (Location) A) Hyderabad B) Mumbai C) Bangalore D) Dharamshala E) Varanasi Codes:

    aI-E, II-C, III-D, IV-A
    bI-E, II-B, III-C, IV-A
    cI-C, II-B, III-D, IV-E
    dI-D, II-E, III-A, IV-B
  17. Question 17 · Economy and Social Development

    Economic liberalisation in India started with

    asubstantial changes in industrial licensing policy
    bthe convertibility of Indian rupee
    cdoing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct investment
    dsignificant reduction in tax rates
  18. Question 18 · History and Culture

    The practice of military governorship was first introduced in India by the

    aGreeks
    bShakas
    cParthians
    dMughals
  19. Question 19 · History and Culture

    Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress: I. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the Congress. II. C. R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of the Congress. III. The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was Alan Octavian Hume. IV. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI and III
    bII and IV
    cII, III and IV
    dI, II, III and IV
  20. Question 20 · Geography

    Match the drainage basins labelled as A, B, C and D with the names listed below and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the drainage basins. Names of drainage basins: 1. Ganga Brahmaputra 2. Indus 3. Parana 4. Zambezi Codes:

    aA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
    bA-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
    cA-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
    dA-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  21. Question 21 · History and Culture

    The Raga which is sung early in the morning is

    aTodi
    bDarbari
    cBhopali
    dBhimpalasi
  22. Question 22 · Economy and Social Development

    Gilt-edged market means

    abullion market
    bmarket of Government securities
    cmarket of guns
    dmarket of pure metals
  23. Question 23 · History and Culture

    Which one of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander's invasion?

    aNanda
    bMaurya
    cSunga
    dKanva
  24. Question 25 · International Relations and Current Affairs

    To reach the final of first Grand Slam of the year 2000, Martina Hingis defeated

    aLindsay Davenport
    bJennifer Capriati
    cSerena Williams
    dConchita Martinez
  25. Question 26 · Economy and Social Development

    The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana which came into operation from 1 December 1997 aims to provide gainful employment to the urban unemployed or underemployed poor but does not include

    aNehru Rozgar Yojana
    bUrban Basic Services Programme
    cPrime Minister’s Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme
    dPrime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana
  26. Question 27 · History and Culture

    Consider the following statements regarding the Chakiarkoothu form of dance: I. It is performed by Chakiar caste. II. It cannot be traditionally witnessed by the higher caste Hindus. III. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument. IV. Its theatre form is called koothambalam. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI, III and IV
    bI, II and III
    cII, III and IV
    dI, II and IV
  27. Question 28 · Geography

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Minerals) I. Mineral oil II. Copper III. Manganese IV. Bauxite List II (Major producer) A) Zambia B) Guyana C) Venezuela D) Gabon Codes:

    aI-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
    bI-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
    cI-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
    dI-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
  28. Question 29 · Economy and Social Development

    Consider the following statements: The Indian rupee is fully convertible I. In respect of Current Account of Balance of Payment. II. In respect of Capital Account of Balance of Payment. III. Into gold. Which of these statements is/are correct?

    aI alone
    bIII alone
    cI and II
    dI, II and III
  29. Question 30 · History and Culture

    Who among the following streamlined the Maratha administration after Sambhaji?

    aRaja Ram
    bBalaji Viswanath
    cGanga Bai
    dNanaji Deshmukh
  30. Question 31 · History and Culture

    Match List I (Books) with List II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. My Music, My Life II. Adha Gaon III. Radha IV. The Pilferer List II A) Laxman Gaikwad B) Rahi Masoom Raza C) Ramakanta Rath D) Ravi Shankar Codes:

    aI-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
    bI-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
    cI-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
    dI-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
  31. Question 32 · Geography

    Which one of the following is known as the “Coffee port” of the world?

    aSao Paulo
    bSantos
    cRio de Janeiro
    dBuenos Aires
  32. Question 33 · Economy and Social Development

    Resurgent India Bonds were issued in US Dollar, Pound Sterling and

    aJapanese Yen
    bDeutsche Mark
    cEuro
    dFrench Franc
  33. Question 34 · International Relations and Current Affairs

    At which one of the cities labelled as A, B, C and D on the given map of Europe was the historic treaty between NATO and Warsaw Pact countries signed in 1998?

    aA
    bB
    cC
    dD
  34. Question 35 · Economy and Social Development

    Match List I (Power generation plant) with List II (Feed material) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. M/s Gowthami Solvents Oil Limited, Andhra Pradesh II. M/s KM. Sugar Mills, Uttar Pradesh III. M/s Satia Paper Mills, Punjab IV. M/s Al Kabeer Exports Limited, Andhra Pradesh List II A) Rice husk B) Slaughter-house waste C) Distillery spent wash D) Black liquor Codes:

    aI-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
    bI-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
    cI-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
    dI-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
  35. Question 36 · History and Culture

    The given map refers to the kingdom of

    aAkbar at the time of capture of Khandesh in 1601
    bAkbar at the time of his death in 1605
    cAurangzeb at the time of capture of Hyderabad
    dAurangzeb at the time of his death in 1707
  36. Question 37 · History and Culture

    Consider the following events: I. Reign of Krishna Deva Raya of Vijayanagara. II. Construction of Qutab Minar. III. Arrival of Portuguese in India. IV. Death of Firoz Tughlaq. Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

    aII, IV, III, I
    bII, IV, I, III
    cIV, II, I, III
    dIV, II, III, I
  37. Question 38 · International Relations and Current Affairs

    The given map shows locations of airports labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. What is the correct sequence of the airports in which the hijacked Indian Airlines plane IC-814 landed after its initial take-off from Kathmandu in December 1999?

    a3, 1, 2, 4
    b2, 4, 1, 3
    c5, 4, 2, 3
    d5, 1, 3, 2
  38. Question 39 · Economy and Social Development

    Consider the following statements: The Ministerial Meeting of the WTO held in December 1999 was unsuccessful because it attempted to link trade with

    1. 1.Labour related issues.
    2. 2.Environment related issues.
    3. 3.Terrorism related issues.
    4. 4.Debt related issues.

    Which of these statements are correct?

    a1, 3 and 4
    b1 and 2
    c2 and 3
    d2 and 4
  39. Question 40 · History and Culture

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Artist) I. Balamurali Krishna II. Mita Pandit III. Kanyakumari IV. Nikhil Bannerjee List II (Medium of music delivery) A) Hindustani vocal B) Ghatam C) Sitar D) Violin E) Carnatic vocal Codes:

    aI-E, II-A, III-B, IV-C
    bI-D, II-C, III-A, IV-E
    cI-C, II-A, III-E, IV-B
    dI-E, II-D, III-A, IV-C
  40. Question 41 · History and Culture

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Iqta II. Jagir III. Amaram IV. Mokasa List II A) Marathas B) Delhi Sultans C) Mughals D) Vijayanagara Codes:

    aI-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
    bI-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
    cI-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
    dI-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
  41. Question 42 · Geography

    Consider the following statements about the “Roaring Forties”: I. They blow uninterrupted in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. II. They blow with great strength and constancy. III. Their direction is generally from North-West to East in the Southern Hemisphere. IV. Overcast skies, rain and raw weather are generally associated with them. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI, II and III
    bII, III and IV
    cI, III and IV
    dI, II and IV
  42. Question 43 · Polity and Governance

    A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that

    ahe obtains permission from the principal of his college
    bhe is a member of a political party
    chis name figures in the Voters’ List
    dhe files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
  43. Question 44 · Geography

    Consider the following provinces of former Yugoslavia: I. Bosnia II. Croatia III. Slovenia IV. Yugoslavia The correct sequence of these provinces from the east to the west is

    aIV, I, III, II
    bIV, I, II, III
    cI, IV, III, II
    dI, IV, II, III
  44. Question 45 · History and Culture

    Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed as the ‘Jagadguru’ by his Muslim subjects because of his belief in secularism?

    aHusain Shah
    bZain-ul-Abidin
    cIbrahim Adil Shah
    dMahmud II
  45. Question 46 · Polity and Governance

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Local bodies) (States as in 1999) I. Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level II. Mandal Praja Parishad III. Tribal Councils IV. Absence of Village Panchayats List II A) Andhra Pradesh B) Assam C) Mizoram D) Meghalaya Codes:

    aI-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
    bI-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
    cI-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
    dI-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
  46. Question 47 · Polity and Governance

    Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

    aGoa attained full statehood in 1987
    bDiu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
    cDaman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
    dDadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
  47. Question 48 · Geography

    Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda?

    aChad
    bMalawi
    cVictoria
    dZambezi
  48. Question 49 · Economy and Social Development

    The growth rate of per capita income at current prices is higher than that of per capita income at constant prices, because the latter takes into account the rate of

    agrowth of population
    bincrease in price level
    cgrowth of money supply
    dincrease in the wage rate
  49. Question 50 · History and Culture

    “In this instance we could not play off the Mohammedans against the Hindus”. To which one of the following events did this remark of Aitchison relate?

    aRevolt of 1857
    bChamparan Satyagraha (1917)
    cKhilafat and Non-cooperation Movement (1919-22)
    dAugust Movement of 1942
  50. Question 51 · International Relations and Current Affairs

    The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1-12-1999: “...Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to 30. The National Assembly was split between liberal, pro-government and Shiite Muslim deputies who were in favour of women’s rights, while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists and tribal MPs. A total of 64 MPs and Ministers were present, of whom two abstained.” The Parliament referred to in this quotation is that of

    aKuwait
    bIran
    cBahrain
    dSaudi Arabia
  51. Question 52 · Geography

    Which one of the following statements is not true?

    aGhaggar’s water is utilised in the Indira Gandhi Canal
    bNarmada rises from Amarkantak region
    cNizam Sagar is situated on the Manjira River
    dPenganga is a tributary of the Godavari
  52. Question 54 · Economy and Social Development

    The first Indian State to have its Human Development Report prepared and released by Amartya Kumar Sen in Delhi is

    aWest Bengal
    bKerala
    cMadhya Pradesh
    dAndhra Pradesh
  53. Question 55 · Geography

    Consider the following statements about the megacities of India: I. Population of each megacity is more than 5 million. II. All the megacities are important sea ports. III. Megacities are either national or State capitals. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI, II and III
    bI and II
    cII and III
    dI and III
  54. Question 56 · Polity and Governance

    The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

    awith the consent of all the States
    bwith the consent of the majority of States
    cwith the consent of the States concerned
    dwithout the consent of any State
  55. Question 57 · History and Culture

    Which one of the following is not a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935?

    aDiarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
    bA bicameral legislature
    cProvincial autonomy
    dAn All-India Federation
  56. Question 58 · Geography

    The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four sugarcane producing States in India is

    aMaharashtra, U.P., Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh
    bU.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh
    cMaharashtra, U.P., Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
    dU.P., Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
  57. Question 59 · Polity and Governance

    Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

    aA Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
    bThe Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
    cThe Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
    dThe President cannot return a Money Bill to Lok Sabha for reconsideration
  58. Question 60 · History and Culture

    The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in

    aJapan
    bBurma
    cSingapore
    dMalaya
  59. Question 61 · Geography

    Match the cities labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given map with the names of the institutes located in these cities and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the institutes. Names of Institutes A) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute B) Central Sheep Breeding Farm C) National Dairy Research Institute D) National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management Codes:

    aA-5, B-1, C-3, D-2
    bA-5, B-2, C-1, D-4
    cA-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
    dA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  60. Question 62 · Economy and Social Development

    A rise in ‘SENSEX’ means

    aa rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
    ba rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with National Stock Exchange
    can overall rise in prices of shares of group of companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
    da rise in prices of shares of all companies belonging to a group of companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
  61. Question 63 · Economy and Social Development

    The new Gross Domestic Product (GDP) series released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in February 1999 is with reference to base price of

    a1991-92
    b1992-93
    c1993-94
    d1994-95
  62. Question 64 · Geography

    Consider the following statements: I. Maharashtra has the highest acreage under jawar in India. II. Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in India. III. Rajasthan has the largest area of cultivable wastelands in India. IV. Andhra Pradesh has the highest per hectare yield of maize in India. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI and IV
    bII and III
    cI and III
    dII and IV
  63. Question 65 · History and Culture

    The last major extension of British Indian territory took place during the time of

    aDufferin
    bDalhousie
    cLytton
    dCurzon
  64. Question 66 · History and Culture

    Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    aBaki Itihas: Badal Sarkar
    bSita Swayamvar: Vishnu Das Bhave
    cYayati: Girish Karnad
    dGiddha: Jabbar Patel
  65. Question 67 · Geography

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Industrial Unit) I. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd. II. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. III. Indian Farmers Fertilisers Cooperative Ltd. IV. National Aluminium Company Ltd. List II (Centre) A) Bangalore B) Bhubaneswar C) Kalol D) Sonepat Codes:

    aI-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
    bI-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
    cI-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
    dI-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
  66. Question 68 · Polity and Governance

    The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the

    ageneration of gainful employment for the unemployed and the underemployed men and women in rural area
    bgeneration of employment for the able-bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
    claying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
    dguarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination
  67. Question 69 · Geography

    Match the locations of ports labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with the names of those ports and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the ports: Names of Ports: 1. Kakinada 2. Karwar 3. Mangalore 4. Tuticorin 5. Veraval Codes:

    aA-4, B-2, C-3, D-5
    bA-5, B-2, C-4, D-1
    cA-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
    dA-5, B-3, C-2, D-1
  68. Question 70 · History and Culture

    As an alternative to the partition of India, Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he

    apostpone granting of independence
    binvite Jinnah to form the government
    cinvite Nehru and Jinnah to form the government together
    dinvite the army to take over for some time
  69. Question 71 · Geography

    Which one of the following ports of India handles the highest tonnage of import cargo?

    aCalcutta
    bKandla
    cMumbai
    dVisakhapatnam
  70. Question 72 · History and Culture

    The native State of Tripura became involved in the Freedom Movement early in the 20th century because

    athe kings of Tripura were always anti-British
    bthe Bengal revolutionaries took shelter in Tripura
    cthe tribes of the State were fiercely freedom loving
    dthere were already some groups fighting against the kingship and its protector, the British
  71. Question 73 · Economy and Social Development

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Boom II. Recession III. Depression IV. Recovery List II A) Business activity at high level with increasing income, output and employment at macro level B) Gradual fall of income, output and employment with business activity in a low gear C) Unprecedented level of under employment and unemployment, drastic fall in income, output and employment D) Steady rise in the general level of prices, income, output and employment Codes:

    aI-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
    bI-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
    cI-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
    dI-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
  72. Question 75 · History and Culture

    That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20 in 1867-68, was ascertained for the first time by

    aM. G. Ranade
    bSir W. Hunter
    cR. C. Dutta
    dDadabhai Naoroji
  73. Question 76 · Geography

    Which one of the following pairs of primitive tribes and places of their inhabitation is not correctly matched?

    aBuksa: Pauri-Garhwal
    bKol: Jabalpur
    cMunda: Chhotanagpur
    dKorba: Kodagu
  74. Question 77 · Geography

    Consider the following statements about the megacities of India: I. Population of each megacity is more than 5 million. II. All the megacities are important sea ports. III. Megacities are either national or State capitals. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI, II and III
    bI and II
    cII and III
    dI and III
  75. Question 78 · Economy and Social Development

    Which one of the following statements is false?

    aAll countries other than India have over 80% literacy
    bMalaysia and Korea have life expectancy higher than all other countries
    cHigher the adult literacy lower is the infant mortality
    dThe life expectancy at birth in India is almost the same as that of Indonesia
  76. Question 79 · Economy and Social Development

    The best performance in terms of Human Development among the Asian countries is by

    aChina
    bMalaysia
    cKorea
    dPhilippines
  77. Question 80 · History and Culture

    After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in

    aChauri-Chaura
    bDandi
    cChamparan
    dBardoli
  78. Question 81 · History and Culture

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Chittagong Armoury Raid II. Abhinav Bharat III. Anushilan Samiti IV. Kuka Movement List II A) Kalpana Dutt B) Guru Ram Singh C) Vikram Damodar Savarkar D) Aurobindo Ghosh Codes:

    aI-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
    bI-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
    cI-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
    dI-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
  79. Question 82 · History and Culture

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I – Land system I. Land allotted to big feudal landlords II. Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors III. Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage, transfer, gift or sell IV. Revenue settlements made at village level List II A) Jagirdari System B) Ryotwari System C) Mahalwari System D) Zamindari System Codes:

    aI-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
    bI-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
    cI-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
    dI-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
  80. Question 83 · International Relations and Current Affairs

    Which one of the following countries occupies the first place in the “Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum?

    aUSA
    bSingapore
    cHong Kong
    dFrance
  81. Question 84 · History and Culture

    Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the most serious revolt after the Sepoy mutiny. Reason (R): Peasants joined the movement in large number in some places.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  82. Question 85 · History and Culture

    Assertion (A): The Aham and Puram poems of the Padinen Kilukanakku group formed a continuation of the Sangam composition. Reason (R): They were included under the Post-Sangam works as against the Sangam works proper.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  83. Question 86 · Geography

    Assertion (A): In Australia, cattle rearing is done more for meat than for milk. Reason (R): Australians are traditionally non-vegetarians.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  84. Question 87 · Geography

    Assertion (A): The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased during the last couple of decades. Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  85. Question 88 · Economy and Social Development

    Assertion (A): The rate of growth of India’s exports has shown an appreciable increase after 1991. Reason (R): The Government of India has resorted to devaluation.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  86. Question 89 · Geography

    Assertion (A): Ganga Plain is the most densely populated part of India. Reason (R): Ganga is the most harnessed river of India.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  87. Question 90 · History and Culture

    Assertion (A): The emphasis of Jainism on non-violence (ahimsa) prevented agriculturalists from embracing Jainism. Reason (R): Cultivation involved killing of insects and pests.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  88. Question 91 · History and Culture

    Assertion (A): The origin of feudal system in ancient India can be traced to military campaigns. Reason (R): There was considerable expansion of the feudal system during the Gupta period.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  89. Question 92 · History and Culture

    Assertion (A): Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan Empire. Reason (R): Kalinga controlled the land and sea routes to South India.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  90. Question 93 · History and Culture

    Assertion (A): The basic weakness of the early nationalist movement lay in its narrow social base. Reason (R): It fought for the narrow interests of the social groups which joined it.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  91. Question 94 · Economy and Social Development

    In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is: (C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Government Expenditure, total exports and total imports respectively.)

    aY = C + I + G + X
    bY = C + I + G – X + M
    cY = C + I + G + (X – M)
    dY = C + I – G + X – M
  92. Question 95 · Science and Technology

    Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set?

    aLight waves
    bSound waves
    cMicro waves
    dRadio waves
  93. Question 96 · Science and Technology

    A noise level of 100 decibels would correspond to

    ajust audible sound
    bordinary conversation
    csound from a noisy street
    dnoise from a machine shop
  94. Question 97 · Science and Technology

    A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not allow any radiation to come out. This property is due to its

    avery small size
    bvery large size
    cvery high density
    dvery low density
  95. Question 98 · Science and Technology

    The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of Kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of

    aeight binary digits
    beight decimal digits
    ctwo binary digits
    dtwo decimal digits
  96. Question 99 · Science and Technology

    Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars: I. Radial tyres II. Streamlined body III. Multipoint fuel injection IV. Catalytic converter with exhaust Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more fuel-efficient?

    aI and II
    bII and III
    cIII and IV
    dI, III and IV
  97. Question 100 · Science and Technology

    Fluorescent tubes are fitted with a choke. The choke coils

    astep up the line voltage
    bstep down the line voltage
    creduce current in the circuit
    dchoke low-frequency currents
  98. Question 101 · Science and Technology

    For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a

    aquartz crystal
    btitanium needle
    claser beam
    dbarium titanate ceramic
  99. Question 102 · Science and Technology

    When a CD (Compact Disc used in audio and video systems) is seen in sunlight, rainbow-like colours are seen. This can be explained on the basis of the phenomenon of

    areflection and diffraction
    breflection and transmission
    cdiffraction and transmission
    drefraction, diffraction and transmission
  100. Question 103 · Science and Technology

    Assertion (A): A man standing on a completely frictionless surface can propel himself by whistling. Reason (R): If no external force acts on a system, its momentum cannot change.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  101. Question 104 · Science and Technology

    Assertion (A): In a motion picture, usually 24 frames are projected every second over the whole length of the film. Reason (R): An image formed on the retina of eye persists for about 0.1 s after the removal of stimulus.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  102. Question 105 · Science and Technology

    Assertion (A): Small glass beads fixed on traffic signals glow brightly when light falls upon them. Reason (R): Light is totally reflected when the angle of incidence exceeds a certain critical value and light travelling in a denser medium is reflected back into a rarer medium.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  103. Question 106 · Science and Technology

    The stones formed in human kidney consist mostly of

    acalcium oxalate
    bsodium acetate
    cmagnesium sulphate
    dcalcium
  104. Question 107 · Science and Technology

    Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the mixing of

    ahydrogen with oxygen
    boxygen with acetylene
    cmethane with air
    dcarbon dioxide with ethane
  105. Question 108 · Science and Technology

    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. German Silver II. Solder III. Bleaching Powder IV. Hypo List II A) Tin B) Nickel C) Sodium D) Chlorine Codes:

    aI-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
    bI-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
    cI-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
    dI-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
  106. Question 109 · Science and Technology

    Which one of the following materials is very hard and very ductile?

    aCarborundum
    bTungsten
    cCast iron
    dNichrome
  107. Question 110 · Science and Technology

    Soft drinks such as colas contain significant quantities of

    acaffeine
    bnicotine
    ctannin
    drenin
  108. Question 111 · Science and Technology

    Aluminium surfaces are often “anodized”. This means the deposition of a layer of

    achromium oxide
    baluminium oxide
    cnickel oxide
    dzinc oxide
  109. Question 112 · Science and Technology

    A small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because silica gel

    akills bacteria
    bkills germs and spores
    cabsorbs moisture
    dabsorbs all gases present inside the bottle
  110. Question 113 · Science and Technology

    Match List I (Industrial processes) with List II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Cracking II. Smelting III. Hydrogenation IV. Vulcanization List II A) Rubber B) Petroleum C) Copper D) Edible fats Codes:

    aI-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
    bI-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
    cI-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
    dI-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
  111. Question 114 · Science and Technology

    Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use chlorofluorocarbons. Reason (R): Ammonia can be liquified at ambient temperatures at low pressures.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  112. Question 115 · Science and Technology

    Which one of the following organisms can serve as a biofertilizer for rice crop?

    aBlue-green algae
    bRhizobium sp
    cMycorrhizal fungi
    dAzotobacter sp
  113. Question 116 · Science and Technology

    At which stage in its life-cycle does the silkworm yield the fibre of commerce?

    aEgg
    bLarva
    cPupa
    dImago
  114. Question 117 · Science and Technology

    Match List I (Diseases) with List II (Types of disease) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Haemophilia II. Diabetes III. Diabetes IV. Ringworm List II A) Deficiency disease B) Genetic disease C) Hormonal disorder D) Fungal infection Codes:

    aI-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
    bI-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
    cI-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
    dI-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
  115. Question 118 · Science and Technology

    The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as

    amm of Hg
    bmilligram per decilitre
    cparts per million
    dgrams per litre
  116. Question 119 · Science and Technology

    Phytotron is a facility to

    agrow plants under disease-free conditions
    bconserve endangered species of plants
    cgrow plants under controlled conditions
    dinduce mutations
  117. Question 120 · Science and Technology

    Match List I (Endocrine glands) with List II (Hormones secreted) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I I. Gonads II. Pituitary III. Pancreas IV. Adrenal List II A) Insulin B) Progesterone C) Growth hormones D) Cortisone Codes:

    aI-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
    bI-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
    cI-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
    dI-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
  118. Question 121 · Science and Technology

    Insect resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an

    avirus
    bbacterium
    cinsect
    dplant
  119. Question 122 · Science and Technology

    Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of

    amonoclonal antibodies
    binterferon
    cantibodies
    dalcohol
  120. Question 123 · Science and Technology

    The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work is caused by

    aa decrease in the supply of oxygen
    bminor wear and tear of muscle fibres
    cthe depletion of glucose
    dthe accumulation of lactic acid
  121. Question 124 · Science and Technology

    Consider the following statements: Hard water is not suitable for I. Drinking. II. Washing clothes with soap. III. Use in boilers. IV. Irrigating crops. Which of these statements are correct?

    aI and III
    bII and III
    cI, II and IV
    dI, II, III and IV
  122. Question 125 · Science and Technology

    Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the

    aseeds have very high oil content
    boil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids
    coil has long shelf life
    doil has very low Erucic acid content
  123. Question 126 · Environment and Ecology

    Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called

    aKeystone species
    bAllopatric species
    cSympatric species
    dThreatened species
  124. Question 127 · Science and Technology

    Assertion (A): In human beings, the females play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring. Reason (R): Women have two ‘X’ chromosomes.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  125. Question 128 · Science and Technology

    Assertion (A): “DNA Finger-printing” has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases. Reason (R): Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.

    aBoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    bBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
    cA is true, but R is false
    dA is false, but R is true
  126. Question 129 · Basic Numeracy

    A rectangular water tank measures 15 m × 6 m at top and is 10 m deep. It is full of water. If water is drawn out lowering the level by 1 metre, how much of water has been drawn out?

    a45,000 litres
    b90,000 litres
    c4,500 litres
    d900 litres
  127. Question 130 · Logical Reasoning and Mental Ability

    An accurate clock shows 8 o’clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o’clock in the afternoon?

    a150°
    b144°
    c168°
    d180°
  128. Question 131 · Basic Numeracy

    The monthly income of Komal and Asha are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, both save Rs. 600 per month. What is their total monthly income?

    aRs. 8,400
    bRs. 5,600
    cRs. 4,200
    dRs. 2,800
  129. Question 132 · Basic Numeracy

    If X = –2, then X³ – X² – X – 1 is equal to

    a1
    b–3
    c–11
    d–15
  130. Question 133 · Basic Numeracy

    In the given figure, all line segments of the shaded portion are of the same length and at right angles to each other. The same can be cut out of a board of side 10 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion?

    a36 cm²
    b48 cm²
    c52 cm²
    d64 cm²
  131. Question 134 · Logical Reasoning and Mental Ability

    Consider the following pictures of a dice: What is the number opposite of 3?

    a1
    b4
    c5
    dData insufficient
  132. Question 135 · Logical Reasoning and Mental Ability

    Examine the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. I. The number of males equals that of females. II. A and E are sons of F. III. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl. IV. B is the son of A. V. There is only one married couple in the family at present. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

    aA, B and C are all females
    bA is the husband of D
    cE and F are children of D
    dD is the grand-daughter of F
  133. Question 136 · Data Interpretation

    The given diagram shows the number of students who failed in an examination comprising papers in English, Hindi and Mathematics. The total number of students who took the test is 500. What is the percentage of students who failed in at least two subjects?

    a6.8
    b7.8
    c34
    d39
  134. Question 137 · Logical Reasoning and Mental Ability

    In a certain code, MARCH is written as OCTEJ. How is RETURN written in that code?

    aTFUVSM
    bQGSTQM
    cTGWTP
    dTGRVSO
  135. Question 138 · Logical Reasoning and Mental Ability

    A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting in six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is between D and F. C is opposite D. D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the following must be true?

    aA is opposite B
    bD is opposite E
    cC and B are neighbours
    dB and E are neighbours
  136. Question 139 · Basic Numeracy

    In a class there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If these boys constitute three fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two third of the number of students in the class, then what is the number of girls in the class?

    a6
    b12
    c18
    d24
  137. Question 140 · Basic Numeracy

    A rectangular piece of iron sheet measuring 50 cm by 100 cm is rolled into a cylinder of height 50 cm. If the cost of painting the cylinder is Rs. 50 per square metre, then what will be the cost of painting the outer surface of the cylinder?

    aRs. 25.00
    bRs. 37.50
    cRs. 75.00
    dRs. 87.50
  138. Question 141 · Basic Numeracy

    In an examination, every candidate took Physics or Mathematics or both. 65.8% took Physics and 59.2% took Mathematics. The total number of candidates was 2000. How many candidates took both Physics and Mathematics?

    a750
    b500
    c250
    d125
  139. Question 142 · Basic Numeracy

    A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blind-folded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?

    a4
    b7
    c11
    d16
  140. Question 143 · Basic Numeracy

    Which one of the following has a greater perimeter than the rest?

    aA square with an area of 36 sq. cm
    bAn equilateral triangle with a side of 9 cm
    cA rectangle with 10 cm as length and 40 sq. cm as area
    dA circle with a radius of 4 cm
  141. Question 144 · Basic Numeracy

    In the given figure, angle QOP = 30° and angle ORP = 20°, angle QOR is equal to

    a100°
    b120°
    c130°
    d140°
  142. Question 145 · Basic Numeracy

    A club has 108 members. Two-thirds of them are men and the rest are women. All members are married except for 9 women members. How many married women are there in the club?

    a20
    b24
    c27
    d30
  143. Question 146 · Data Interpretation

    The following figure represents time vs. learning curves of two students, Q and R, for learning a Mathematics lesson. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the graph?

    aR started slowly in the beginning but got ahead of Q to complete learning the lesson
    bQ started slowly and finished learning the lesson earlier than R
    cR was always faster than Q in learning Mathematics
    dQ was always faster than R in learning Mathematics
  144. Question 148 · Logical Reasoning and Mental Ability

    A person starts from a point A and travels 3 km eastwards to B and then turns left and travels thrice that distance to reach C. He again turns left and travels five times the distance he covered between A and B and reaches his destination D. The shortest distance between the starting point and destination is

    a18 km
    b16 km
    c15 km
    d12 km
  145. Question 149 · Data Interpretation

    The distribution of 1,00,000 tourists who visited India during a particular year is shown in the given charts. Based on this, the number of Japanese tourists below the age of 39 who visited India in the year concerned is

    a10,000
    b8,000
    c6,000
    d4,000
  146. Question 150 · Basic Numeracy

    What is the maximum number of pieces of 5 cm × 5 cm × 10 cm cake that can be cut from a big cake of 5 cm × 30 cm × 30 cm size?

    a10
    b15
    c18
    d30

Source: UPSC, Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2000, General Studies. UPSC's own paper isn't online; the words are from a published compilation. The paper on upsc.gov.in.